I've recently had a tenant "uplifted" from a property by Kirklees Alcohol and Drug abuse. Apparently this was for her own safety re drug dealers etc. she has been rehoused into a hostel. She left with only what she stood up in with no notice.
This occurred on the 4th of October.
After many skips and help from the people at the support unit to tidy the house the keys were presented to me on the 14th of November.
I've recently had a bill from Kirklees Council re the council tax stating she vacated the property on the 4th of October and the council tax was my responsibly from that date. I've written in to explain that i didn't receive the keys until the 14th of November and that I couldn't enter the property to prepare in to be re let so surely i wasn't liable for the Council Tax. They have written back stating they are not prepared to move on it as the tenants tenancy agreement was rolling over and not on a fixed term agreement. I feel its to do with the definition of the word vacate. Is a tenant classed as vacated when all there possessions are still in the property and they still have the key?
Any help would be appreciated
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